network.5h.pl

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1. What is accomplished by segmenting a LAN with a bridge?
1. increase large collision domains
2. reduce large collision domains
3. reduce small broadcast domains
4. increase small broadcast domains
2. How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a
   router
   running a standard edition of the IOS?
1. 4
2. 5
3. 8
4. 10
3. What is a disadvantage of cut-through switching?
1. no error checking
2. a decrease in error checking
3. decrease in number of collision domains
4. decrease in bandwidth
5. increased latency
4. Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details?
   (Choose two.)
1. Packets are put into frames.
2. Data is packaged into a packet.
3. Data is segmented into segments.
4. Data is converted for Internet travel.
5. An address is added to identify the directly connected
   device.
5. Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)
1. twisted pair cable
2. T style connectors
3. baseband transmission
4. 10 gigabits per second data rate
5. 10 megabits per second data rate
6. decimal encoded data transmission
6. A LAN is to be added to an unused router Ethernet interface. What
   steps
   must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to
   the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.)
1. Enter the command no shutdown.
2. A password must be set on the interface.
3. The interface DCE clock rate must be set.
4. The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.
5. The interface must be configured with an IP address and
   subnet mask.
6. The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface
   to be
   configured.
7. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T
   network? (Choose three.)
1. Category 5 UTP
2. Category 5e UTP
3. Category 3 UTP
4. coaxial cable
5. multi-mode fiber
6. single mode fiber
8. If 4 bits are borrowed from the host field of a Class C address
   to
   create subnets, what will the range of usable host addresses be in the
   last subnet?
1. .224 to .239
2. .225 to .239
3. .225 to .254
4. .241 to .254
5. .241 to .255
6. .240 to .255
9. Which of the following describe how a device on a LAN builds a
   table of
   MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
1. by monitoring the traffic that occurs on the local network
   segment
2. via FTP from the nearest router
3. by sending a request to the nearest domain name server
4. by broadcasting an ARP request
10. Which of the following best describes how the Gigabit Ethernet,
    Media
    Access Control method views the link?
1. ring
2. shared bus
3. point-to-point
4. star
5. extended star
11. What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission
    (PAR)?
1. PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be
   resent in a
   format the destination host can process.
2. PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request
   that all
   segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.
3. PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one
   host are
   received by another host before additional data segments are sent.
4. PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the
   synchronization
   process.
12. Which criteria identify a Class B address? (Choose two.)
1. decimal number in first octet between 127-191
2. decimal number in first octect between 128-192
3. decimal number in first octect between 128-191
4. first bit of binary IP address is 0
5. first two bits of binary IP address are 10
6. first three bits of IP binary address are 110
13. An administrator has made routing protocol changes to a router’s
    configuration. To ensure that the changes are implemented, the active
    configuration is saved and the router is reloaded. After the router has
    initialized, the output on the screen displays “Would you like to enter
    the initial configuration dialog?[yes/no]:” Why did this dialog appear?
1. There was a POST failure.
2. The incorrect IOS loaded.
3. There was an error in the startup configuration file.
4. The configuration register was set to ignore NVRAM.
14. What operations are performed during router initialization?
    (Choose
    three.)
1. The IOS is loaded into RAM.
2. The generic bootstrap loader tests all interfaces.
3. All directly connected network devices are identified.
4. A valid configuration file is loaded from NVRAM if specified
   by the
   configuration register.
5. A question driven setup menu is presented if a valid
   configuration
   file cannot be loaded.
15. For a network manager planning the installation of a new network,
    which
    of the following will be needed to implement a typical 10BASE-T network
    installation? (Choose three.)
1. RJ-11
2. BNC connectors
3. RJ-48 patch cables
4. RJ-45 connectors
5. Category 5 UTP cables
6. hubs or switches
16. A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000
    subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask
    below is the appropriate one?
1. 255.255.0.0
2. 255.255.240.0
3. 255.255.255.0
4. 255.255.255.192
5. 255.255.255.224
17. A network administrator can establish a remote session to a host
    using
    the Router> telnet 192.168.1.1 command but is unsuccessful when
    using the Router> telnet Boston command to connect to the same
    interface. Which of the following could be the problem? (Choose two.)
1. The ip host table on the router is not configured.
2. The command telnet Boston was issued from the wrong router
   prompt.
3. The routing table is missing.
4. Domain name services are not available.
18. Which of the following network components would be considered
    Layer 1
    devices? (Choose three.)
1. hub
2. router
3. bridge
4. switch
5. repeater
6. transceiver
19. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data
    before
    signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
1. 100 meters
2. 185 meters
3. 300 meters
4. 500 meters
20. What is the result of executing the erase startup-config command?
1. It deletes the active configuration file from RAM.
2. It deletes the backup configuration file in NVRAM.
3. It deletes the saved configuration file from ROM.
4. It deletes the saved configuration file from the C: drive.
21. Which of the following imposes boundaries on broadcast traffic?
1. Bridge
2. Repeater
3. Router
4. Transceiver
22. Which utility shows the route a packet takes to reach its
    destination?
1. netstat
2. ping
3. Telnet
4. traceroute
23. Which device is considered a multi-port bridge?
1. hub
2. router
3. switch
4. gateway
5. transceiver
6. repeater
24. What organization developed the TCP/IP reference model?
1. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
2. National Intstitute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
3. Department of the Navy (DoN)
4. Department of Defense (DoD)
5. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
6. Stanford University
25. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic
    shown?
1. CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers
   A, B, C,
   and E.
2. By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from
   routers B and
   C.
3. If routers D and E are running different routing protocols,
   they will
   not exchange CDP information.
4. Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.
26. How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a
    primary route failed?
1. configure the route with a metric greater than the default value
2. configure the route and the router will activate it as needed
3. configure the route to activate by using the redistribute
   static
   command
4. configure the route with an administrative distance greater
   than the
   default value
27. Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent.
    Select
    the correct answer from the list below.
1. 156
2. 158
3. 160
4. 162
5. 164
6. 166
28. What happens on an Ethernet network after a collision occurs?
    (Choose
    three.)
1. A backoff algorithm is invoked and transmission is stopped.
2. Devices involved in the collision have a random period of time
   for
   priority retransmission of the damaged packet.
3. The devices involved in the collision release a token
   indicating the
   time each station may begin retransmitting.
4. The devices involved in the collision do not have priority
   to transmit
   data.
5. The devices with data to transmit return to a
   listen-before-transmit
   mode.
6. Transmit work will restart with the reissuance of all data.
29. Which of the following types of networks pass a token
    sequentially to
    each host? (Choose two.)
1. Ethernet
2. Token Ring
3. FDDI
4. Frame Relay
5. ISDN
30. What is the length of a MAC address?
1. 8 bits
2. 8 bytes
3. 24 bits
4. 24 bytes
5. 48 bits
6. 48 bytes
31. Which of the following are TCP services? (Choose three.)
1. address resolution
2. end-to-end communication
3. flow control
4. reliability of data delivery
5. path determination
6. data representation
32. Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that
    describes RAM.
1. provides working storage
2. stores a fully functional IOS image
3. stores the startup configuration file
4. initializes the code used in router startup
33. Which command will display routing table information about all
    known
    networks and subnetworks?
1. Router# show ip interfaces
2. Router# show ip connections
3. Router# show ip route
4. Router# show ip networks
34. Which of the following statements describe distance vector
    routing
    updates? (Choose three.)
1. Topology changes are transmitted to all routers at once.
2. Routers send their entire routing tables in distance vector
   updates.
3. Path cost metrics for each route are included in the updates.
4. Periodic updates are sent directly to every router in the
   network.
5. Routing updates are sent periodically to adjacent routers.
6. Routers send only the state of their own links in distance
   vector
   updates.
35. Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving
    host or
    network is not available?
1. time exceeded
2. redirect
3. destination unreachable
4. source quench
5. parameter problem
6. echo reply
36. How many total subnets are created by applying the subnet mask
    255.255.252.0 to a Class B network?
1. 4
2. 6
3. 64
4. 252
5. 255
6. 1024
37. Which of the following conditions will cause a router using
    holddown
    timers to ignore an update?
1. an update from a different router with a better metric
2. an update from a different router with a poorer metric
3. an update from the same router with a better metric
4. an update from the same router with a poorer metric
38. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
1. type-of-service
2. identification
3. flags
4. time-to-live
5. header checksum
39. Which of the following is a network type that is widely used in
    dialup
    networking?
1. shared media
2. point-to-point
3. extended shared media
4. point-to-multipoint
40. When a network administrator applies the subnet mask
    255.255.255.248 to
    a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are
    available to be assigned to devices?
1. 1022
2. 510
3. 254
4. 126
5. 30
6. 6
41. Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) operates at which OSI Layer?
1. physical layer
2. network layer
3. data link layer
4. presentation layer
42. Which protocol can be used to load or retrieve Cisco IOS images
    to or
    from a router?
1. SNMP
2. TFTP
3. UDP
4. TCP
43. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol of the
    TCP/IP
    model?
1. FTP
2. UDP
3. IP
4. TFTP
44. Which of the following is created with switched full-duplex
    transmission?
1. more collision domains
2. fewer collision domains
3. no collision domains
4. no increase in broadcast domains
5. more broadcast domains
45. Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if
    the
    subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
1. 75.32.75.15
2. 205.16.35.11
3. 199.254.129.111
4. 129.130.17.143
5. 135.22.55.93
6. 105.33.62.213
46. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered
    into
    the routing table?
1. dynamic
2. interior
3. static
4. standard
47. What is used to resolve known IP addresses to unknown MAC
    addresses?
1. ARP
2. DNS
3. DHCP
4. RARP
48. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable,
    connection-oriented
    data communication services?
1. session
2. transport
3. network
4. data link
49. Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork
    structure
    in an IP network? (Choose three.)
1. permits network address duplication
2. allows for address flexibility
3. prevents address replication
4. provides broadcast containment
5. adds low-level security
6. allows for more network hosts available
50. How many IP addresses can be assigned to host devices on each
    subnet of
    a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248?
1. 3
2. 5
3. 6
4. 8
5. 30
6. 8190
51. After a Telnet session has been suspended, which actions will
    restart
    the session? (Choose two.)
1. pressing Enter to restart the most recent session
2. using the resume command followed by a session ID
3. typing the session ID followed by pressing Enter
4. using the resume command followed by the IP address
52. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?
1. Layer 1
2. Layer 2
3. Layer 3
4. Layer 4
5. Layer 5
6. Layer 6
53. Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
1. TCP
2. SMTP
3. UDP
4. SNMP
54. Which of the following factors should be considered when
    selecting a
    routing protocol to be implemented in an enterprise network? (Choose
    three.)
1. bandwidth consumption
2. router memory requirements
3. router location
4. spanning tree size
5. router processor capability
6. flow control capability
55. A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine
    if
    workstation B can be reached. What events will occur if this command is
    successful? (Choose two.)
1. The router will block the ping request message.
2. The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping
   response.
3. Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to
   workstation B.
4. Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation
   A.
5. Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to
   workstation B.
6. Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to
   workstation A.
56. Which mode will a router enter if it is unable to locate a valid
    startup configuration file during the boot process?
1. Boot mode
2. Config mode
3. Setup mode
4. Startup mode
57. Which protocol of the TCP/IP model internet layer provides
    connectionless, best-effort-delivery of datagrams?
1. ARP
2. ICMP
3. IP
4. RARP
5. TCP
6. DNS
58. Which of the following does a router use to make a forwarding
    decision?
1. destination IP address
2. MAC address
3. source IP address
4. encapsulation address
5. default gateway
59. Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that
    describes NVRAM.
1. provides working storage
2. stores a fully functional IOS image
3. stores the startup configuration file
4. initializes the code that is used to boot the router
60. Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed
    protocols?
1. A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other
   routers
   and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
2. A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other
   routers and
   maintain tables for a routed protocol.
3. Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
4. There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN?
   (Choose
   three.)
   1. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
   2. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
   3. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
   4. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
   5. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
   6. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header
   identifies the
   destination of the frame?
   1. CIR
   2. DE
   3. DLCI
   4. ISDN
   5. FRAD
   6. PVC
3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is
   configured as
   shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link
   is unable to establish a PPP session?
   1. The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
   2. The usernames are misconfigured.
   3. The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
   4. The clock rate must be 56000.
   5. The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
   6. Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial
      0/1 on
      Right.
4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a
   frame-relay
   connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol
   is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
   1. There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch
      and
      the router.
   2. There is no clock present on the serial interface.
   3. The interface is shut down.
   4. RARP is not functioning on the router.
   5. The cable is disconnected.
5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where
   the
   responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
   1. The International point is on the customer side of the
      network
      terminating unit(NTU).
   2. The United States point is at the interface of the
      customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
   3. The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
   4. The point is called the demarcation point.
   5. The point is typically located at the service provider’s
      central office.
   6. The point is located between the customer’s local area networks.
6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network
   administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on
   two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and
   are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is
   connected to the DCE cable end?
   1. show interfaces serial 0/0
   2. show version
   3. show controllers serial 0/0
   4. show protocols serial 0/0
   5. show status serial 0/0
7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working
   properly.
   The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP
   server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From
   the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
   1. The DHCP server service is not enabled.
   2. The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
   3. The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
   4. The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
   5. All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.
8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command
   when
   configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in
   this configuration? (Choose two.)
   1. Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this
      network if
      RIP is the routing protocol.
   2. A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
   3. All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be
      configured in the same subnet.
   4. A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote
      routers.
   5. An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.
9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static
   Frame
   Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
   1. when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
   2. when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
   3. when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
   4. when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC
      must be
      controlled
   5. when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs
      are
      being used
10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address
    with
    the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
    1. RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
    2. RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
    3. RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100
       broadcast
    4. RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0
       broadcast
    5. RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
    6. RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp
       broadcast
11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call
    setup and
    call teardown?
    1. ITU-T Q.921
    2. ITU-T Q.931
    3. ITU-T I.430
    4. ITU-T I.431
12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame
    Relay
    network? (Choose two.)
    1. create a full-mesh topology
    2. disable Inverse ARP
    3. use point-to-point subinterfaces
    4. use multipoint subinterfaces
    5. remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command
13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in
    the
    partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
    1. defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
    2. defines which addresses are allowed into the router
    3. defines which addresses can be translated
    4. defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface
    of
    RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following
    facts are established:- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
    - RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
    - RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
    - The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
    - The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

    What should the administrator do to solve the problem?

    1. Add a clock rate on RouterA.
    2. Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
    3. Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
    4. Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
    5. Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.
15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to
    the
    regional office. A network administrator determines a user has
    initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional
    office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to
    disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning
    properly?
    1. change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
    2. remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
    3. change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
    4. disable inverse ARP
16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies
    the
    proper order of DDR?
    1 – dial number is looked up
    2 – interesting traffic triggers DDR
    3 – route to destination is determined
    4 – call is made
    1. 1,2,3,4
    2. 1,3,2,4
    3. 2,3,1,4
    4. 2,1,3,4
    5. 3,2,1,4
    6. 3,1,2,4
17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a
    multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
    1. NAT with DHCP
    2. Frame Relay
    3. HDLC with encryption
    4. HDLC with CHAP
    5. PPP with PAP
    6. PPP with CHAP
18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI
    configuration? (Choose two.)
    1. create subinterfaces
    2. define the LMI type
    3. set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
    4. set the interface DLCI
    5. set the switch type
    6. specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF
19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an
    ISDN
    circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of
    this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated
    to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of
    time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR
    on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
    1. use PPP multilink
    2. lower idle timer setting
    3. use CHAP authentication
    4. change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a
    serial
    link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both
    routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are
    true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
    1. The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary “Type” field that
       may not
       be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
    2. HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at
       both ends
       of the serial link.
    3. PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between
       equipment
       from multiple vendors.
    4. Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial
       link.
    5. The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
    6. There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password
       configurations.
21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does
    the
    workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the
    Internet? (Choose two.)
    1. The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
    2. The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
    3. The router is not properly configured to use the access
       control
       list for NAT.
    4. The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside
       addresses.
    5. The access control list does not include the IP address
       192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.
22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is
    configured as
    shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic
    from crossing this link?
    1. The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
    2. The usernames are misconfigured.
    3. The clock rate must be 56000.
    4. The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
    5. The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
    6. Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial
       0/1 on
       Right.
23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
    1. dial string
    2. DLCI
    3. idle time out
    4. interesting traffic
    5. PVC
24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
    1. Application Layer, Physical Layer
    2. Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
    3. Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
    4. Physical Layer, Network Layer
25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the
    condition
    of the circuit?
    1. The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
    2. The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
    3. The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
    4. Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
    5. The circuit is functioning properly.
26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a
    central
    office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The
    Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit
    shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout
    the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson
    traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally
    needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should
    the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central
    office? (Choose two.)
    1. Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame
       Relay
       connections.
    2. Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN
       connections.
    3. Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS
       dial-up
       connections.
    4. Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay
       connection.
    5. Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up
       connection.
27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames
    in its
    queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
    1. Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
    2. Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the
       switch
       queue.
    3. Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
    4. The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the
       congested
       link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested
       link.
    5. The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on
       the
       congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the
       congested link.
28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue
    between
    two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug
    ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part
    of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause
    of this connectivity issue?
    1. There is not a route to the remote router.
    2. The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
    3. The username/password was not properly configured on the
       WHSE
       router.
    4. The remote router has a different authentication protocol
       configured.
29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown
    below
    represent? (Choose two.)
    1. Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast,
       status
       defined, active
    2. 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
    3. 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial
       interface.
    4. DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
    5. broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP
       v1 can
       send packets across this PVC.
    6. dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled
       for
       this connection.
    7. active indicates that the ARP process is working.
30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show
    frame-relay pvc command?
    1. The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
    2. The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer
       there.
    3. The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
    4. The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.
31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as
    private
    addresses? (Choose three.)
    1. 192.168.146.0/22
    2. 172.10.25.0/16
    3. 172.31.0.0/16
    4. 20.0.0.0/8
    5. 10.172.92.8/29
32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate
    begins
    testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the
    remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote
    access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this
    configuration? (Choose three.)
    1. PPP authentication is not properly configured.
    2. No dialer map is configured.
    3. The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
    4. No interesting traffic is defined.
    5. No route is determined to the remote network.
    6. A wrong number is configured in the dial string.
33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point
    PVC.
    The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface
    command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and
    the other router?
    1. frame-relay pvc multipoint
    2. frame-relay pvc point-to-point
    3. encapsulation frame-relay cisco
    4. encapsulation frame-relay ietf
    5. frame-relay lmi-type ansi
34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a
    backup
    for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
    1. X.25
    2. DSL
    3. ISDN
    4. cable modem
35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be
    used
    to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN
    switch?
    1. show dialer
    2. show isdn status
    3. show interfaces bri0/0:1
    4. show interfaces serial0/0.1
36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office
    with ISDN
    for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires
    different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different
    authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same
    time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost
    effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to
    accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
    1. Install and configure a PRI.
    2. Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for
       each
       remote site.
    3. Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in
       global
       configuration.
    4. Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
    5. Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.
37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten
    hosts
    in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses
    to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the
    router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
    1. Configure static NAT for all ten users.
    2. Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
    3. Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
    4. Configure DHCP and static NAT.
    5. What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.
38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay?
    (Choose two.)
    1. circuit-switched
    2. connection oriented
    3. OSI Layer 3
    4. packet-switched
    5. reliable
39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of
    establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
    1. authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
    2. authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
    3. network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
    4. network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
    5. link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
    6. link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet
   LAN.
   (Choose three.)
   1. improper placement of enterprise level servers
   2. addition of hosts to a physical segment
   3. replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
   4. increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
   5. creation of new collision domains without first adding network
      hosts
   6. migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN
2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer
   protocols? (Choose three.)
   1. a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console
      connections with various network devices
   2. a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes
      to
      connect to remote offices
   3. a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on
      TCP/IP
      networks and the Internet
   4. a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to
      another
      computer
   5. a protocol that exchanges network management information
      between a
      network device and a management console
3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
   1. hold-down timers
   2. poison reverse
   3. spanning tree protocol
   4. time to live
   5. split horizon protocol
4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network
   troubleshooting
   tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are
   true. (Choose two.)
   1. CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
   2. The output of this command displays information about
      directly
      connected Cisco devices only.
   3. The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21
      interface.
   4. SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
   5. SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches
      directly
      connected to it.
   6. SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed
      protocols
5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a
   ‘Password Required but None Set’ message when trying to connect
   remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the
   Denver router to allow remote access?
   1. Router(config)# line console 0
      Router(config-line)# login
      Router(config-line)# password cisco
   2. Router(config)# line vty 0 4
      Router(config-line)# login
      Router(config-line)# password cisco
   3. Router(config)# line virtual terminal
      Router(config-line)# enable login
      Router(config-line)# password cisco
   4. Router(config)# line vty 0 4
      Router(config-line)# enable secret
      Router(config-line)# password cisco
   5. Router(config)# enable secret cisco
   6. Router(config)# enable cisco
6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing
   protocols?
   1. low processor overhead
   2. poison reverse
   3. routing loops
   4. split horizon
   5. shortest-path first calculations
7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure.
   After
   running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds
   that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this
   problem?
   1. The configuration register is set for 0×2100.
   2. The configuration register is set for 0×2101.
   3. The configuration register is set for 0×2102.
   4. The configuration register is set for 0×2142.
   5. Boot system commands are not configured.
   6. Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the
      configuration in
      NVRAM
   7. Nederst pĺ formularen
8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of
   access
   control lists? (Choose three.)
   1. show ip interface
   2. show ip route
   3. show processes
   4. show running-config
   5. show cdp neighbor
   6. show access-lists
9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard
   access
   control list? (Choose two.)
   1. destination address and wildcard mask
   2. source address and wildcard mask
   3. subnet mask and wildcard mask
   4. access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
   5. access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999
10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access
    control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
    1. most
    2. host
    3. all
    4. any
    5. some
    6. sum
11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN
    and
    all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast
    domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
    1. 3 collision domains
    2. 3 broadcast domains
    3. 5 broadcast domains
    4. 9 collision domains
    5. 10 collision domains
    6. 13 collision domains
12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing
    scheme and
    VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
    1. 192.168.16.63/27
    2. 192.168.16.158/27
    3. 192.168.16.192/27
    4. 192.168.16.113/30
    5. 192.168.16.145/30
    6. 192.168.16.193/30
13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
    1. prevents Layer 2 loops
    2. prevents routing loops on a router
    3. creates smaller collision domains
    4. creates smaller broadcast domains
    5. allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF
    routing
    protocol?
    1. activates the OSPF neighboring process
    2. ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
    3. provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence
       process
    4. streamlines and speeds up the convergence process
15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d
    Spanning
    Tree Protocol?
    1. Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
    2. Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding
       state.
    3. Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled
       state.
    4. It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding
16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback
    address on a
    router?
    1. Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
       Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
    2. Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
       Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
       Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
    3. Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
       Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
       Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
    4. Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
       Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255
17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM?
    (Choose
    two.)
    1. EIGRP
    2. OSPF
    3. RIP v1
    4. RIP v2
    5. IGRP
18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through
    a
    trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will
    solve the duplex mismatch?
    1. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
       SW1(config-if)# duplex full
    2. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
       SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
    3. SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
       SW2(config-if)# duplex full
    4. SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
       SW2(config-if)# full-duplex
19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use
    EIGRP.
    Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be
    the problem?
    1. EIGRP does not support VLSM.
    2. The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency
       changes.
    3. The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
    4. An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.
20. According to the the provided router output, which of the
    following
    statements is true regarding PPP operation?
    1. Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
    2. Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
    3. Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer
       phase
       completed successfully.
    4. Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase
       completed
       successfully
21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection
    between two
    routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that
    the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices
    could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
    1. local router
    2. local Frame Relay switch
    3. remote router
    4. remote Frame Relay switch
22. R3 has the following configuration:R3# show running-config
    –some output text omitted–
    interface serial0/0
    bandwidth 128
    ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
    encapsulation frame-relay
    frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

    After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is
    issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the
    debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what
    might be problem?

    1. No clock rate assigned.
    2. There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
    3. An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
    4. The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword
23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose
    three.)
    1. The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
    2. The LMI type must always be manually configured.
    3. The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
    4. The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
    5. The LMI type configured on the router must match the one
       used on
       the Frame Relay switch.
    6. The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the
       DTE
       and DCE
24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network
    Address
    Translation (NAT) overloading?
    1. Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP
       address.
    2. The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided
       into
       smaller manageable groups.
    3. A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
    4. The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP
       addresses for each private IP address configured
25. Which two statements are true about the committed information
    rate on a
    Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
    1. The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port
       speed.
    2. The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
    3. The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the
       port speed.
    4. The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in
       excess of
       the CIR.
    5. Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be
       discarded
       at the source.
    6. It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the
       CIR
26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the
    processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and
    termination?
    1. show interface bri0/0
    2. show isdn active
    3. debug isdn q921
    4. debug isdn q931
    5. debug ppp negotiation
    6. debug ppp authentication
27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose
    three.)
    1. PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
    2. PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
    3. PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in
       LCPs.
    4. PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data
       link
       connection.
    5. PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as
       authentication,
       compression, and error detection
28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols
    for a
    PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of
    CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
    1. establishes identities with a two-way handshake
    2. uses a three-way authentication periodically during the
       session to
       reconfirm identities
    3. control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login
       events
    4. transmits login information in encrypted format
    5. uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent
       playback
       attacks
    6. makes authorized network administrator intervention a
       requirement to
       establish each session
29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
    1. They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
    2. They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because
       they are
       put in by a network administrator.
    3. They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
    4. They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link
30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets,
    identify
    the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
    1. 192.168.14.8
    2. 192.168.14.16
    3. 192.168.14.24
    4. 192.168.14.32
    5. 192.168.14.148
    6. 192.168.14.208
31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes
    based
    on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process
    begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic
    signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will
    begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of
    forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
    1. 1) fast forward
       2) fragment free
       3) store-and-forward
    2. 1) store-and-forward
       2) fragment free
       3) fast forward
    3. 1) fragment free
       2) fast forward
       3) store-and-forward
    4. 1) fast forward
       2) store-and-forward
       3) fragment free
32. Which of the following commands will display a communication
    message on
    a router before the router prompt is shown?
    1. banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE
       PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
    2. message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED
       TO THE
       FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
    3. banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED
       TO THE
       FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
    4. hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE
       PROSECUTED TO THE
       FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should
    be
    used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
    1. RouterA(config)# router ospf
    2. RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
    3. RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
    4. RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
    5. RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will
    configure
    router A for OSPF?
    1. router ospf 1
       network 192.168.10.0
    2. router ospf 1
       network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
       network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
    3. router ospf 1
       network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
       network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
    4. router ospf 1
       network 192.168.10.0 area 0
35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information
    between
    routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
    1. TCP
    2. RIP
    3. CSMA/CD
    4. Ethernet
36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local
    loop in
    a North American city?
    1. a router with a serial interface
    2. a router with an S/T interface
    3. a router with a U interface
    4. an ISDN terminal adapter
37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that
    Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are
    possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose
    two.)
    1. The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
    2. An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
    3. A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
    4. The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
    5. Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device
38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
    1. data transport reliability
    2. best path determination
    3. establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
    4. encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and
       destination
       MAC addresses
    5. best-effort datagram delivery
39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route
    192.168.7.24
    255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
    1. A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to
       address 192.168.7.9.
    2. 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
    3. 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
    4. This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
    5. This command is used to define a static route
40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP?
    (Choose
    three.)
    1. SMTP
    2. FTP
    3. SNMP
    4. HTTP
    5. TFTP
    6. DHCP
41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management
    mechanisms?
    (Choose three.)
    1. BECN
    2. DLCI
    3. DE
    4. FECN
    5. LMI
    6. Inverse ARP
42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path
    exists
    to a destination network?
    1. Router# show ip interfaces brief
    2. Router# show ip route
    3. Router# show cdp neighbors
    4. Router# show running-config
    5. Router# show protocols
43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL
    information
    is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
    1. router table
    2. topology table
    3. DUAL table
    4. CAM table
    5. ARP table
44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and
    automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the
    following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached
    routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
    1. ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
    2. ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
    3. summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
    4. ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
    5. serial interface on router A
    6. serial interface on router B
45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two
    loopback
    interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol.
    What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
    1. the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
    2. the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest
       IP address
    3. the loopback with the highest IP address configured
    4. the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
    5. the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces
46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56
    255.255.255.224,
    on which subnetwork does this address reside?
    1. 172.0.0.0
    2. 172.16.134.0
    3. 172.16.134.32
    4. 172.16.134.48
    5. 172.16.134.47
    6. 172.16.134.63
47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was
    received?
    (Choose two.)
    1. Router# show ip protocols
    2. Router# show version
    3. Router# show interfaces
    4. Router# show ip updates
    5. Router# show ip route
48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the
    following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
    1. IP addresses
    2. subnet masks
    3. port numbers
    4. routed protocols
    5. routing protocols
    6. interfaces
49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64
    255.255.255.224,
    which of the following would describe this address?
    1. This is a useable host address.
    2. This is a broadcast address.
    3. This is a network address.
    4. This is not a valid address
50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The
    company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the
    following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of
    the subnetworks?
    1. 200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
    2. 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
    3. 200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
    4. 200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240